Understanding the efficacy of HMA + venetoclax combination in elderly AML

An 80-year-old gentleman presents to the clinic with fever since 2 months. He has no comorbidities. Clinically, he is PS2, appears pale, rest of the examination is unremarkable. He is hospitalized and a bone marrow studies confirms the diagnosis of acute myeloid leukemia. He has normal karyotype, molecular studies reveal mono-allelic CEBPA mutation. He is considered unfit for intensive chemotherapy.

Which treatment option is associated with best outcomes in this patient?